Joseph Turian
2005-03-12 02:52:01 UTC
Let's say I have the following formula:
$f(x) = 1 \forall x$
But this is poor, since there should be a space between 1 and the
\forall.
Is there any difference between:
$f(x) = 1\ \forall x$
and
$f(x) = 1~\forall x$
Does the '~' have a fixed length?
Joseph
$f(x) = 1 \forall x$
But this is poor, since there should be a space between 1 and the
\forall.
Is there any difference between:
$f(x) = 1\ \forall x$
and
$f(x) = 1~\forall x$
Does the '~' have a fixed length?
Joseph